LINGUISTICS & CULTURE
|Data:||01/MAI/2003 12:20 AM|
|Assunto:||Re: Will + Perfect Aspect|
1 (you said) Why do we have "did go" as a cognate for "went", and can use "did" as an auxillary to indicate past for the present form of nearly all our verbs, but we cannot use "did be" for "was"?
I can only say that the observed pattern in the language is that (normal) lexical verbs usually require an auxiliary for questions and negatives – the verb ‘be’ is not within the group of lexical verbs and ‘behaves’ differently
I don’t, however, see how this impacts upon anything that I have said (although I won’t be surprised if I’ve missed something)
2 (you said) Also, notice that it is archaic to use the remote forms, like "went", in questioning sentences. We say:"Did you go there?" rather than "Went you there?" Why?
I’m referring to standard current usage and can’t see the relevance of this to what I’ve proposed
3 (you said) Regarding "must", Skeat says it is the past tense of the AS verb "mot". This present tense has been lost, and we now use "must" as present tense.
I really can’t comment, not having read Skeat or having any expertise about the origin of individual words – perhaps if you gave some examples of the mot/must present/past dichotomy it might be clearer
Can you, or Skeats, provide an example of past use of must? (I very much doubt it)
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